1. Which of the following medication classes is not recommended for use in combination with a GLP-1 RA?

2. For Questions 2 and 3, please refer to the following CASE scenario:
RJ is a 56-year-old woman with T2D. She was diagnosed with T2D 11 years ago. Her past medical history (PMH) is additionally notable for obesity (BMI = 35 kg/m2), essential hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and hospitalization for a myocardial infarction (MI) 4 months ago. Her T2D is currently managed on insulin degludec (U-100) 60 U subcutaneously once daily and metformin 1,000 mg ER twice daily. RJ’s current A1C is 7.3%.

RJ’s primary care provider (PCP) would like to start her on dulaglutide 0.75 mg subcutaneously once weekly.


Which of the following is true regarding initiation of a GLP-1 RA in the case of RJ?

3. In consideration of RJ's current A1C, which of the following adjustments to her background therapy would be empirically recommended?

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