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1. Which of the following statements regarding pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction (PPID)—ie, equine Cushing's disease—is correct?

A. Alopecia and sparse hair growth are common clinical signs of equine Cushing's disease in horses. B. Cyproheptadine currently is the drug of choice for treating equine Cushing's disease. C. The most serious clinical sign of equine Cushing's disease is lameness and chronic pain due to inflammatory and degenerative changes in the lamina of the hoof. D. The primary cause of equine Cushing's disease is neoplasia of the adrenal glands.

2. Which of the following drugs has the largest body of evidence to support efficacy in treating equine Cushing's disease?

A. Bromocriptine B. Chasteberry C. Cyproheptadine D. Pergolide

3. Which of the following animals is thought to be the most likely vector for transmitting Sarcocystis neurona to horses?

A. Birds B. Mosquitoes C. Opossums D. Raccoons

4. Which of the following drug therapies for equine protozoal myeloencephalitis is most likely to precipitate a “treatment crisis” due to sudden die-off of organisms?

A. Flunixin meglumine B. Phenylbutazone C. Dexamethasone D. Pyrimethamine/sulfadiazine

5. Which of the following statements regarding Rhodococcus equi infection and its treatment is correct?

A. Compared with erythromycin, azithromycin is a superior therapy for treatment of Rhodococcus equi infection in foals. B. Monotherapy with rifampin is preferred over combination therapy with rifampin and clarithromycin because of the potentially serious interaction between the two drugs. C. Rhodococcus equi is a gram-positive, facultative intracellular pathogen that is transmitted from mares to foals via intrauterine exposure. D. Rhodococcus equi infection occurs randomly in middle-aged to older animals regardless of gender or breed.

6. Which of the following drugs discolors the urine, saliva, and tears of treated horses with an orange-red tint?

A. Azithromycin B. Erythromycin C. Gamithromycin D. Rifampin

7. Owners of horses diagnosed with uveitis should be counseled to avoid contact with the horse's urine, so as not to risk infection with which of the following organisms?

A. Leptospira B. Neospora C. Rhodococcus D. Sarcocystis

8. Which of the following topical agents for the treatment of recurrent uveitis has the best anti-inflammatory activity and ocular penetration?

A. Bromfenac 0.09% ophthalmic solution B. Diclofenac 0.1% ophthalmic solution C. Flurbiprofen 0.03% ophthalmic solution D. Prednisolone acetate 1% ophthalmic suspension

9. Equine glaucoma is most likely to:

A. Be caused by changes in the iridocorneal angle and associated with a decrease in outflow of aqueous humor from the anterior chamber. B. Be caused by changes in the iridocorneal angle and associated with overproduction of aqueous humor. C. Develop secondary to uveitis and be associated with a decrease in outflow of aqueous humor from the anterior chamber. D. Develop secondary to uveitis and be associated with overproduction of aqueous humor.

10. Which of the following statements regarding the treatment of glaucoma in horses is correct?

A. Adrenergic receptor agonists such as brimonidine are used frequently to treat equine glaucoma because their safety and efficacy in horses is well established. B. Dorzolamide is more effective than brinzolamide in lowering intraocular pressure and causes less stinging on application. C. Prostaglandins such as latanoprost are the therapy of choice for equine glaucoma. D. The topical β blocker used most commonly for the treatment of equine glaucoma is timolol maleate 0.5%.