1. Which of the following is a risk factor for dry eye disease?
A. Male sex
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Hypertension
D. Hepatitis B
2. Which of the following is TRUE about aqueous-deficient dry eye disease symptoms?
A. The worse the symptoms, the more severe the disease
B. Symptoms are worst upon awakening in the morning
C. Patients with dry eyes are more likely to be depressed
D. Every patient presents with the same dry eye symptoms
3. Which of the following is TRUE about artificial tears?
A. The higher the demulcent concentration, the higher the viscosity
B. They contain the same biologically active components of natural tears
C. They increase tear film evaporation and supplement natural tear production
D. They have no effect on ocular surface stress or optical surface quality
4. Which of the following active substances is correctly paired with its mechanism of action?
A. Lifitegrast; prevent bacterial contamination of artificial tears
B. Carboxymethylcellulose; calcineurin inhibitor immunosuppressant
C. Polyethylene glycol; protect and lubricate mucous membrane surfaces
D. Benzalkonium chloride; precipitate protein to clear mucus from eye surface
5. A patient presents to your pharmacy with dry, itchy eyes, so you suspect dry eye disease. Upon asking the 7 questions to establish differential diagnosis, you learn this patient has had symptoms in both eyes for 1 week with no causative event, and they are not experiencing mouth dryness or inflammation. They wear contact lenses daily, but they usually have to remove them halfway through the eye to help relieve the itching. You administer the SPEED questionnaire, and they score a 4. Which of the following is an appropriate course of action?
A. Recommend low-viscosity artificial tear drops and return to the pharmacy in 2-3 weeks
B. Recommend high-viscosity artificial tear ointment and return to the pharmacy in 2-3 weeks
C. Recommend high-viscosity artificial tear drops and refer them to their primary care provider
D. Refer them to their eye care specialist immediately for suspected Sjogren's syndrome
6. A patient approaches the pharmacy counter to pick up prescriptions and asks to pay for their over-the-counter items at the same time. Which of the following combinations would prompt pharmacist referral/consultation?
A. Contact solution and preservative-free carboxymethylcellulose artificial tears
B. Tricyclic antidepressant and mineral oil nighttime eye ointment
C. Omega-3 fatty acids and hormonal contraceptives
D. Polyethylene glycol/propylene glycol artificial tears and diphenhydramine
7. Which of the following is TRUE about administering eye formulations?
A. Put eye ointment in the fridge before administration to thicken it
B. When using 2 different eye drops, separate them by about 5 minutes
C. Do NOT shake a suspension before administration, it will degrade it
D. Apply eye products in order of highest viscosity to lowest viscosity
8. Which of the following is TRUE about dry eye disease's impact on quality of life?
A. Dry eye disease treatment is simple and non-invasive, so it does not affect quality of life
B. Dry eye disease usually only affects patients' work efficiency, not other daily tasks
C. Dry eye disease's burden is worse than that experienced by patients with angina pectoris
D. People with dry eye disease are 64% more likely to be depressed than those without
9. Which of the following correctly pairs a DED treatment with its expected therapy duration?
A. Oral doxycycline; 6 to 12 weeks
B. Carboxymethylcellulose drops; 3 months
C. Loteprednol etabonate; 6 to 12 weeks
D. Cyclosporine A drops; 2 months
10. A patient who is a contact lens wearer uses preservative-free propylene glycol eye drops and mineral oil eye ointment. Which of the following is an appropriate counseling point?
A. Use the eye ointment first thing in the morning to provide a full day of relief
B. After using eye drops, wait 10 minutes before reinserting your contact lenses
C. Switch to an eye drop with benzalkonium chloride in it, as it protects contact lenses
D. If you don't touch the eye drop container to the ocular surface, you can use it again
Evaluation Questions
11. To what extent did the program meet objective #1?
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
12. To what extent did the program meet objective #2?
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
13. To what extent did the program meet objective #3?
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
14. To what extent did the program meet objective #4?
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
15. Rate the effectiveness of how well the program related to your educational needs:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
16. Rate how well the active learning strategies (questions, cases, discussions) were appropriate and effective learning tools:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
17. Rate the quality of the faculty:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
18. Rate the effectiveness and the overall usefulness of the material presented:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
19. Rate the appropriateness of the examination for this activity:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
20. Rate the effectiveness of how well the activity related to your practice needs:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
21. Rate the effectiveness of how well the activity will help you improve patient care:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
22. Will the information presented cause you to change your practice?
A. Yes
B. No
23. Are you committed to making these changes?
A. Yes
B. No
24. As a result of this activity, did you learn something new?
A. Yes
B. No
25. What is your practice setting or area of practice?
A. Community Pharmacy/Independent
B. Community Pharmacy/Chain
C. Hospital/Health Systems
D. Administrative/Pharmacy Director
E. Critical Care Pharmacy
F. Long-term Care
G. Managed Care/PBM
H. Oncology
I. Specialty Pharmacy
J. Industry/Manufacturing
26. How many years have you been in practice?
A. <5
B. 5 – 10
C. 11 – 20
D. >20